According to the Politico article, a motion to take away voting rights under Article 7 has to be approved unanimously by the EU member countries. According to the Guardian article, the motion only needs "to win the support of member states under the EU’s system of qualified majority voting." Does anyone know which is correct? It's important, because Orbán of Hungary has already stated that he'd veto the motion.
According to the Politico article, a motion to take away voting rights under Article 7 has to be approved unanimously by the EU member countries. According to the Guardian article, the motion only needs "to win the support of member states under the EU’s system of qualified majority voting." Does anyone know which is correct? It's important, because Orbán of Hungary has already stated that he'd veto the motion.